Despite Limited Content, 30 Questions Came from Our App in RUHS MO 2025!
Even with a smaller question bank this year, Cerebrum App delivered 30 direct hits in the RUHS MO 2025 exam out of 100 questions.
This proves the accuracy, quality, and exam-focused approach of our content.
We’re just getting started — more content, more success in the upcoming exams!
Q1. Multipurpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of :
(A) Kartar Singh Committee
(B) Mudaliar Committee
(C) Srivastava Committee
(D) Bhore Committee
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q2. Which of the following structures do not form the boundary of the triangle of Koch containing the atrioventricular node and its connections ?
(A) Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve
(B) Limbus fossa ovalis
(C) Coronary sinus opening
(D) Tendon of Todaro
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q3. Which statement is not true regarding differentiated thyroid cancers ?
(A) Hürthle cell carcinoma usually affect older population.
(B) Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma cannot be reliably diagnosed by FNAC.
(C) Papillary thyroid carcinoma has a female preponderance.
(D) Follicular thyroid carcinoma disseminates primarily via the lymphatic route.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q4. Prion diseases are transmitted by :
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) DNA
(D) RNA
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q5. A person was found dead by his wife in his garage with his car running. Carbon monoxide gas poisoning was confirmed to be the cause of his death. What will be the color of postmortem staining in this case ?
(A) Grayish / black
(B) Chocolate brown
(C) Cherry red
(D) Brick red
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q6. A dead body was brought for postmortem examination. On examination of the eyes, sclera showed triangular shaped discolored areas. What is this known as ?
(A) La facies sympatique
(B) Lazarus syndrome
(C) Kevorkian sign
(D) Tache noire
Note: Previously discussed in our High Yield notes
Q7.A couple is known to be hostile to each other. The wife is seen buying arsenic allegedly for killing rats on a particular day. The husband dies of arsenic poisoning the next day. Police raids the house and finds that there is arsenic in food, which the wife prepared. What type of evidence is this ?
(A) Documentary evidence
(B) Circumstantial evidence
(C) Direct evidence
(D) Hearsay evidence
Note: Previously discussed in our High Yield notes
Q8 Which is not an etiology of obstructive shock ?
(A) Cardiac Tamponade
(B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Massive pulmonary embolism
(D) Tension Pneumothorax
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q9. A 24-year-old primigravida presents in active labour at 39 weeks of gestation. Her BMI is 35 kg/m². After the delivery of fetal head, the shoulders fail to deliver with normal traction. Which of the following maneuver is not done in this condition ?
(A) Ritgen maneuver
(B) Zavanelli maneuver
(C) McRoberts maneuver
(D) Wood’s maneuver
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q10. A 10-month-old child presented with fever, pallor and spleen up to the umbilicus. The complete blood counts revealed Hb of 7 gm/dL, total leukocyte counts of 40000/mm³, and platelets counts of 30000/mm³. His bone marrow examination revealed B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia by flow cytometry, and his cytogenetics study showed the presence of hyperdiploidy. Which of the following criteria makes him a high-risk leukemia ?
(A) Bulky organomegaly
(B) Hyperdiploidy
(C) Age
(D) TLC counts
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q11. At what age does a child start imaginative play ?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
Explanation:
Imaginative play starts by 3 years of age, and this is considered a key developmental milestone. It is also mentioned in GHAI that by 4 years, play activities become very imaginative, indicating that the foundation begins earlier, at 3 years.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes + Must Know Topics
Q12. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for cephalhematoma ?
(A) It usually resolves over 3-6 weeks.
(B) It can cause hyperbilirubinemia.
(C) It lies over the parietal bone between the skull and periosteum.
(D) It crosses the suture line and does not have a distinct margin.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Q13. What is the imaging of choice for suspected acute osteomyelitis ?
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) MRI Correct
(C) CT scan
(D) X-ray
Note: Similar MCQ Previously discussed in Test series
Q14. Which of the following modality imaging method is used for acute suspicion of stroke ?
(A) Contrast enhanced MRI
(B) MR Spectroscopy
(C) Diffusion weighted MRI
(D) T2 weighted MRI
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q15. A 50 year old woman presents with heat intolerance, warm soft skin, protruding eyeball, nervousness, increased pulse rate, high plasma T4 and T3 but low plasma TSH level. She is advised to take methimazole. Which of the following might not be the underlying cause of her clinical condition ?
(A) Solitary toxic adenoma
(B) Toxic multinodular goiter
(C) Graves disease
(D) Myxedema
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q16. Which of the following is not a long-acting insulin ?
(A) Detemir
(B) Degludec
(C) Glargine
(D) Lispro
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q17. An obese diabetic on metformin 1 gm twice a day presents with a recent history of acute coronary event and uncontrolled blood sugar levels. Which anti-diabetic drug is preferred as an add-on to metformin in this patient ?
(A) Linagliptin
(B) Gliclazide
(C) Empagliflozin
(D) Pioglitazone
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q18. A publicity campaign aimed at promoting particular product in a favorable light, so that people accept it without further exploring various details, is called :
(A) Propaganda
(B) Advocacy
(C) Health Education
(D) Behavior change communication
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q19. The best way of teaching urban women about ORS is :
(A) Flash cards
(B) Role play
(C) Lecture
(D) Demonstration
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q20. Walk in coolers (WIC) are used for storage of the following vaccines EXCEPT :
(A) Hepatitis B
(B) DPT
(C) OPV Vaccine
(D) BCG
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
Q21. Assessment of Vitamin B12 nutritional status can be done by determining the urinary levels of :
(A) Methylmalonic acid
(B) Propionyl CoA
(C) Cobalamin
(D) Folic acid
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q22. Presence of which vitamin in the gut enhances the absorption of iron ?
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Vitamin B9
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin B6
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q23. A farmer was brought to the emergency room after he accidentally consumed a liquid. He had four episodes of vomiting and copious secretions from his mouth. His blood pressure was unrecordable and had pin-point pupils. What is the poison consumed ?
(A) Ethanol
(B) Malathion
(C) Acetone
(D) Atropine
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
Q24. A pedestrian crossing the road met with a road traffic accident. He has presented to the emergency with left foot drop. Power in tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus is 0/5. While power in tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius is 4/5. What is the likely site of injury ?
(A) Posterior dislocation of femur head
(B) Left ankle fracture
(C) Supracondylar fracture of left femur
(D) Fracture neck of left fibula
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
Q25. A 65 year old male presents with a sudden loss of vision in his right eye. A dilated fundus examination reveals a pale retina with a well-defined “cherry-red spot” at the fovea. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Central retinal artery occlusion
(D) Central retinal vein occlusion
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
Q26. False statement regarding screening mammography is :
(A) Younger women with a previous breast cancer, significant family history of breast cancer should also be recommend for screening mammography.
(B) The goal of screening mammography is detecting occult breast cancer with better prognosis than cancers identified by palpation.
(C) Screening mammography is performed in asymptomatic women.
(D) Annual screening mammography is recommended for women older than 40 years.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q27. Which of the following is the recommended modality for breast cancer screening in a 32-year-old with BRCA mutation ?
(A) 6 monthly ultrasound
(B) Clinical breast examination 3 monthly
(C) Annual Screening Mammogram
(D) Annual Screening Mammogram and Breast MRI
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q28. A 55-year-old female with history of palpable breast lump underwent mammography. Her mammography categorized the lesion as BIRADS 0. The interpretation of test result is :
(A) Benign
(B) Probably Benign
(C) Negative
(D) Inconclusive
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q29. Which of the following imaging modality does not produce harmful ionic radiation ?
(A) PET-scan
(B) CT scan
(C) X-ray
(D) MRI
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Q30. A 40-year-old man undergoes a routine eye exam with an irregular pupil that is non-reactive to light but accommodates. What is the most likely cause of this finding ? [Challenging Question)
(A) Third nerve palsy
(B) Argyll Robertson pupil
(C) Adie’s tonic pupil (By RUHS)
(D) Horner’s syndrome
(B) is the Best Answer according to patient’s presentation.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)