Answer Key & Explanations are Updating………….(Most of the controversial Question’s Explanation has been updated)
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PSM
1. Public health care delivery system is developed on the philosophy of :
(A) Tertiary health care
(B) Primordial health care
(C) Primary health care
(D) Secondary health care
Explanation:
- The public health care delivery system in India and globally is fundamentally based on the concept of Primary Health Care, which was clearly emphasized in the Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978.
- Primary health care means providing essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community, at a cost they can afford.
- It is a first point of contact for individuals with the health system and is focused on preventive, promotive, curative, and rehabilitative services
Also, the concept of primary health care includes:
- Community participation
- Intersectoral coordination
- Appropriate technology
- Equitable distribution
Other options:
(A) Tertiary health care
- It is provided by medical colleges, All India Institutes, specialized hospitals, and other apex institutions.
(B) Primordial health care
- Primordial prevention refers to the prevention of emergence of risk factors themselves.
- It focuses on lifestyle modifications at a very early stage to prevent the development of diseases like obesity or hypertension.
- Primordial prevention is a type of prevention, not a health care delivery system.
(D) Secondary health care
- It is provided at district hospitals and community health centres (first referral level).
- It acts as a referral from primary care.
Reference: Park's textbook of preventive & social medicine,E-27th,p-692,702
2. Which of the following vaccines is to be given by oral route ?
(A) DPT
(B) Meningococcal
(C) Pneumococcal polysaccharide
(D) Rotavirus
Explanation: Rotavirus vaccine is given orally to infants to protect against rotavirus diarrhea.
Other options:
(A) DPT vaccine (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus)
- Route: Intramuscular injection.
(B) Meningococcal vaccine
- Route: Intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.
- Protects against Neisseria meningitidis infection
(C) Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)
- Route: Intramuscular or subcutaneous injection.
- Protects against 23 types of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- Mainly given to elderly persons (>65 years) and high-risk individuals (chronic diseases, immunocompromised).
3. When we take a clinical history, from a patient, it is an example of : ( Answer Changed )
(A) Health education
(B) Counseling
(C) Structured interview
(D) Unstructured interview
4. A publicity campaign aimed at promoting particular product in a favorable light, so that people accept it without further exploring various details, is called :
(A) Propaganda
(B) Advocacy
(C) Health Education
(D) Behavior change communication
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
5. Following is the direct mode of transmission of infectious diseases :
(A) Unclean hands and fingers
(B) Air-borne
(C) Fomite Borne
(D) Contact with soil
6. The following are observational studies EXCEPT :
(A) Field Trials
(B) Case Control
(C) Ecological
(D) Cohort
7. Foundation of Indian Public Health system was laid on the basis of which committee recommendations ?
(A) Integration of health service committee
(B) Health and sanitation committee
(C) Health survey and development committee
(D) Health survey and planning committee
8. The best way of teaching urban women about ORS is :
(A) Flash cards
(B) Role play
(C) Lecture
(D) Demonstration
9. Walk in coolers (WIC) are used for storage of the following vaccines EXCEPT :
(A) Hepatitis B
(B) DPT
(C) OPV Vaccine
(D) BCG
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
10. When a doctor is giving talk to that the vaccines used in the vaccination programme not lead to the impotence among the vaccinated children in their later life. What type of barrier to communication is the doctor trying to overcome in present scenario ? ( Answer Changed )
(A) Environmental barrier
(B) Psychological barrier
(C) Physical barrier
(D) Cultural barrier
11. Following agent is NOT suitable for disinfection of faeces and urine :
(A) Cresol
(B) Formalin
(C) Bleaching Powder
(D) Salt Solution
12. A village is affected with epidemic of cholera, what is the first step which should be taken in village to decrease deaths from cholera ?
(A) Primary chemoprophylaxis
(B) Treat everyone in village with tetracycline
(C) Safe water supply and sanitation
(D) Cholera vaccination to all individuals
Explanation:
Control depends on education and improving sanitation, especially of food and water.
Patients should be isolated, their excreta disinfected, and their contacts monitored.
Chemoprophylaxis with antimicrobial drugs may be useful.
Repeated vaccination with either lipopolysaccharide extracts from vibrios or dense Vibrio suspensions offers limited protection to heavily exposed individuals (such as family contacts), but it is not effective for epidemic control.
Reference: Jawetz, Melnick & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology(Edition-26th),p-258
13. Any direct or indirect intervention taken by the government to bring change in the existing behaviour :
(A) Health education approach
(B) Primary healthcare approach
(C) Service approach
(D) Regulatory approach
14. Multipurpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of :
(A) Kartar Singh Committee
(B) Mudaliar Committee
(C) Srivastava Committee
(D) Bhore Committee
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
15. What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis ?
(A) Contaminated food
(B) Skin contact
(C) Blood transfusion
(D) Airborne droplets
16. PHC which conducts more than 20 deliveries in a month is designated as :
(A) Type “C”
(B) Type “D”
(C) Type “A”
(D) Type “B”
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17. Which of the following structures do not form the boundary of the triangle of Koch containing the atrioventricular node and its connections ?
(A) Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve
(B) Limbus fossa ovalis
(C) Coronary sinus opening
(D) Tendon of Todaro
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
18. Facial nerve leaves the brainstem at :
(A) Internal acoustic meatus
(B) Stylomastoid foramen
(C) Pontomedullary junction
(D) Posterior Cranial Fossa
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19. A 45 year old woman comes to hospital for her executive health check up. Her Blood Pressure is found to be same while lying and while standing. Which of the following changes is seen in lying to standing positions ?
a. Heart rate – increased
b. Preload – decreased
c. Heart rate – decreased
d. Preload – increased
(A) c, d
(B) a, b
(C) b, c
(D) b, d
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20. Assessment of Vitamin B12 nutritional status can be done by determining the urinary levels of :
(A) Methylmalonic acid
(B) Propionyl CoA
(C) Cobalamin
(D) Folic acid
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
21. Presence of which vitamin in the gut enhances the absorption of iron ?
(A) Vitamin B12
(B) Vitamin B9
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin B6
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
22. Modification of a defective enzyme to restore functional enzyme activity of cultured human pluripotent stem cells can be achieved by which one of the following methods ?
(A) Mismatch repair
(B) Gene cloning
(C) Nucleotide base excision repair
(D) CRISPR/Cas9-based gene editing Correct
23. Which amino acid majorly contributes to the nitrogen in urea biosynthesis ?
(A) Glutamine Correct
(B) Ornithine
(C) Lysine
(D) Arginine
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24. Which of the following is not a long-acting insulin ?
(A) Detemir
(B) Degludec
(C) Glargine
(D) Lispro
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
25. All of the following medications are effective in treating both psoriatic arthritis and the skin disease of psoriasis EXCEPT :
(A) Rituximab Correct
(B) Secukinumab
(C) Adalimumab
(D) Infliximab
26. Which of the following statements is wrong about Gabapentin ?
(A) It has no known interactions with other antiseizure drugs.
(B) It is effective for focal seizures, without progression to tonic-clonic seizures.
(C) Its oral absorption is dose proportionate and well metabolized in humans.
(D) It is not bound to plasma proteins and is excreted unchanged.
Explanation:
Gabapentin is well absorbed but NOT well metabolized, excreted unchanged in urine, and has no drug interactions.
| Gabapentin | Description |
| Mechanism | Enhances GABA release; does not bind to GABA receptors. |
| Uses | Used for partial seizures, neuropathic pain, postherpetic neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy. |
| Absorption | Well absorbed orally but absorption is not dose-proportionate. |
| Metabolism | Not metabolized, excreted unchanged in urine. |
| Plasma binding | Not bound to plasma proteins. |
| Drug Interactions | No known interactions with other antiseizure drugs. |
| Side effects | Drowsiness, fatigue, ataxia, dizziness. |
| Other points | Useful in refractory partial seizures with or without secondary generalization. |
Reference: KDT, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology(Edition-8th),p-446
27. An obese diabetic on metformin 1 gm twice a day presents with a recent history of acute coronary event and uncontrolled blood sugar levels. Which anti-diabetic drug is preferred as an add-on to metformin in this patient ?
(A) Linagliptin
(B) Gliclazide
(C) Empagliflozin
(D) Pioglitazone
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
28. Which of the following is not a limitation of intravenous route of administration ?
(A) Not suitable for oily solutions or poorly soluble substances
(B) May interfere with interpretation of Creatine Kinase test Correct
(C) Increased risk of adverse effects
(D) Must inject solutions slowly as a rule
Explanation:
- It is not suitable for oily solutions or poorly soluble drugs, as these may cause embolism. Only aqueous solutions can be safely administered via IV route.
- It carries an increased risk of adverse effects, because drugs administered intravenously reach vital organs rapidly and at high concentrations, increasing the risk of toxicity.
- Drugs must be injected slowly as a general rule to prevent sudden peak levels in the blood, which can be harmful.
Option (B):
- Creatine Kinase (CK) is an enzyme measured in blood tests to assess muscle damage, such as in myocardial infarction or rhabdomyolysis.
- CK levels can be falsely elevated due to:
- Intramuscular (IM) injections
- Strenuous exercise
- Muscle trauma
- However, IV injections do not affect CK levels, since they do not involve muscle tissue.
Reference: KDT, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology(Edition-8th),p-14
29. Which of the following is used for treatment of pulmonary hypertension ?
(A) Prostanoids
(B) Beta blockers Correct
(C) Endothelin receptor antagonists
(D) Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors
30. A 25-year-old G2P1L0 woman is seen at 31 weeks period of gestation with complaints of right calf pain and swelling. Bilateral lower limb doppler ultrasound showed deep venous thrombosis in right leg and she was started on unfractionated heparin. Which of the following is the side-effect of long-term heparin therapy ?
(A) Hypertension
(B) Osteoporosis Correct
(C) Thrombophilia
(D) Diabetes mellitus
31. An 8-year-old girl was taking 800 mg carbamazepine daily and was prescribed 1 g of erythromycin for 14 days. Within 2 days she began to experience balancing difficulties and ataxia. What could be the cause of her symptoms ?
(A) She is experiencing erythromycin toxicity.
(B) She is experiencing hypersensitivity reaction.
(C) She is experiencing relapse of epileptic symptoms.
(D) She is experiencing carbamazepine toxicity. Correct
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32. Sickle cell anemia is inherited in which pattern ?
(A) Autosomal recessive Correct
(B) Mitochondrial inheritance
(C) Autosomal dominant
(D) X-linked recessive
33. All of the following are typical causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis EXCEPT :
(A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Hepatitis C
(D) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug use
Explanations:
Causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis:
- Infections (chronic hepatitis B, syphilis, schistosomiasis, malaria)
- Malignant neoplasms, particularly carcinoma of the lung and colon and melanoma
- Autoimmune diseases, particularly systemic lupus erythematosus
- Exposure to inorganic salts (gold, mercury)
- Drugs (penicillamine, captopril, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents)
Reference: Robbins Basic Pathology (Edition-10th),p-558
34. Which statement is not true regarding differentiated thyroid cancers ?
(A) Hürthle cell carcinoma usually affect older population.
(B) Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma cannot be reliably diagnosed by FNAC.
(C) Papillary thyroid carcinoma has a female preponderance.
(D) Follicular thyroid carcinoma disseminates primarily via the lymphatic route.
Explanation:
(A) Hürthle cell carcinoma usually affects older population — True
- Hürthle cell carcinoma is more common in older adults, particularly women.
- It is considered a variant of follicular carcinoma, but tends to be more aggressive.
(B) Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma cannot be reliably diagnosed by FNAC — True
- Fine-needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) cannot differentiate between follicular adenoma and carcinoma, as the diagnosis depends on capsular or vascular invasion, which requires histology.
(C) Papillary thyroid carcinoma has a female preponderance — True
- Most common thyroid cancer.
- Shows a female predominance, with a ratio of around 3:1 (female:male).
(D) Follicular thyroid carcinoma disseminates primarily via the lymphatic route —False
- Incorrect because follicular carcinoma spreads hematogenously, especially to lungs and bones.
- In contrast, papillary carcinoma spreads via lymphatics.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
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35. A 23-year-old boy presented with complaints of diplopia, dysphagia and dysphonia following consumption of food from a roadside vendor. On examination he was found to have ptosis and dysarthria made. Botulinum toxin B causes these symptoms by :
(A) Cleaving Ras
(B) Cleaving Rab
(C) Cleaving Synaptobrevin Correct
(D) Cleaving SNAP 25
Explanation:
Botulinum toxin B causes symptoms like diplopia, dysphagia, and dysphonia by cleaving synaptobrevin, a SNARE protein required for the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. This leads to flaccid paralysis, as seen in botulism. Among the SNARE proteins:
- Type A and E toxins cleave SNAP-25.
- Type B toxin cleaves synaptobrevin
Reference: Jawetz, Melnick & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology(Edition-26th),p-179
36. Prion diseases are transmitted by :
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) DNA
(D) RNA
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
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37. A 27 year old male sustained injury to the right eye in an assault. He subsequently developed right corneal opacity following injury resulting in impairment of vision. Medico legally such injury is labelled as :
(A) Dangerous
(B) Serious
(C) Simple
(D) Grievous
Explanation:
The injury described (corneal opacity causing impairment of vision) is medico-legally labeled as “Grievous Hurt”.
Please note- Permanent loss does not necessarily mean that the injury should be absolutely incurable — for example, loss of sight due to corneal opacity may be curable by corneoplasty, but still, the injury is legally considered grievous.
Reference: The Essentials of FMT By KS Reddy (Edition-33rd),p-292
38. A farmer was brought to the emergency room after he accidentally consumed a liquid. He had four episodes of vomiting and copious secretions from his mouth. His blood pressure was unrecordable and had pin-point pupils. What is the poison consumed ?
(A) Ethanol
(B) Malathion
(C) Acetone
(D) Atropine
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
39. A person was found dead by his wife in his garage with his car running. Carbon monoxide gas poisoning was confirmed to be the cause of his death. What will be the color of postmortem staining in this case ?
(A) Grayish / black
(B) Chocolate brown
(C) Cherry red
(D) Brick red
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
40. A 29 year old male reported to emergency with alleged history of being beaten by the neighbour. On examination, a dark brown color bruise was present over back of left forearm in the lower third part. Vesicles were present on the site and the patient was itching the site of bruise. What is the most likely causative factor in this case ?
(A) Single edge weapon
(B) Double edge weapon
(C) Blunt trauma
(D) Calotropis gigantea Correct
41. A dead body was brought for postmortem examination. On examination of the eyes, sclera showed triangular shaped discolored areas. What is this known as ?
(A) La facies sympatique
(B) Lazarus syndrome
(C) Kevorkian sign
(D) Tache noire
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our High Yield notes
42.A couple is known to be hostile to each other. The wife is seen buying arsenic allegedly for killing rats on a particular day. The husband dies of arsenic poisoning the next day. Police raids the house and finds that there is arsenic in food, which the wife prepared. What type of evidence is this ?
(A) Documentary evidence
(B) Circumstantial evidence
(C) Direct evidence
(D) Hearsay evidence
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our High Yield notes
- Circumstantial evidence refers to indirect evidence, where an inference must be drawn to link it to the crime.
- In this case:
- The wife was seen buying arsenic.
- The husband died of arsenic poisoning.
- Arsenic was found in the food she prepared.
- No one saw her administering poison directly; instead, these facts surround the event and point toward her guilt when considered together.
Thus, the case relies on circumstances and logical inference, not direct witnessing of the act.
Option (A) Documentary Evidence:
- Documentary evidence includes written documents, certificates, reports submitted in Court.
- Here, it is not about a document; it’s about observations and physical findings, so not applicable.
Option (C) Direct Evidence:
- Direct evidence is when a witness sees or hears the crime taking place (e.g., eyewitness testimony).
- Here, no one directly saw the wife poisoning the husband; it is not direct evidence.
Option (D) Hearsay Evidence:
- Hearsay evidence is second-hand information: when a witness states what someone else told them.
- In this case, the information comes from direct observation and investigation, not second-hand reports.
Reference: The Essentials of FMT By KS Reddy (Edition-33rd),p-9—
43.A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw. He is sweating profusely and appears anxious. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment elevation with elevated Troponin and Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) enzyme markers. What is the likely diagnosis ?
(A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
(B) Pulmonary embolism
(C) Angina
(D) Myocardial infarction (MI) Correct
44.. A 76-year-old woman presents with 3 days of fever and 1 day of severe pain in her left knee to the point where she can no longer stand. She has no past medical history. She is not sexually active. On examination, her temperature is 102°F, her heart rate is 100 beats/min, with blood pressure of 108/65. Her left knee is tender with erythema and a palpable effusion. Her cardiac, lung and abdominal examinations are all normal. Which of the following should you do ?
(A) Draw blood cultures, perform joint aspiration and initiate vancomycin.
(B) Initiate vancomycin and perform an x-ray of the left knee.
(C) Draw blood cultures and perform joint aspiration.
(D) Draw blood cultures, perform an x-ray of the left knee and initiate vancomycin.
Explanation:
- Acute monarthritis with fever is a red flag suggesting septic arthritis, where immediate arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) is mandatory.
- Blood cultures should also be obtained before starting antibiotics.
- Vancomycin should be started empirically to cover Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA) while awaiting synovial fluid and blood culture results.
- Early X-ray is not helpful initially for diagnosis in acute inflammatory arthritis.
Harrison says- “Synovial fluid analysis is essential for all patients with new-onset acute inflammatory arthritis, and blood cultures should also be obtained before the initiation of antibiotic therapy & If there is strong suspicion of septic arthritis (fever, acute monoarthritis, inability to bear weight), empiric antibiotic therapy should be started immediately after obtaining blood and synovial fluid samples.”
45. A 36-year-old man presents to the clinic reporting ankle swelling. On examination, his blood pressure is elevated at 172/90, and he has bilateral ankle edema. Laboratory studies show a potassium of 2.9 and normal creatinine. Which of the following studies is recommended next ?
(A) Plasma renin and aldosterone Correct
(B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(C) AM cortisol
(D) CT of adrenals
46. A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room after a first episode of witnessed generalized tonic-clonic seizure. She is administered lorazepam 2 mg with cessation of seizure activity. All the following are likely possible causes of her seizure EXCEPT :
(A) Brain tumor
(B) Genetic disorder
(C) Alcohol withdrawal
(D) Autoantibodies
Explanations:
For adults over 35 years (like the 45-year-old woman in the question), common causes listed include:
- Cerebrovascular disease
- Brain tumor
- Alcohol withdrawal
- Metabolic disorders
- Autoantibodies
Genetic disorders: Typically present earlier in life, and are uncommon as a first-time cause in middle-aged adults.
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine,E-19th,p-2546
47. A 50 year old woman presents with heat intolerance, warm soft skin, protruding eyeball, nervousness, increased pulse rate, high plasma T4 and T3 but low plasma TSH level. She is advised to take methimazole. Which of the following might not be the underlying cause of her clinical condition ?
(A) Solitary toxic adenoma
(B) Toxic multinodular goiter
(C) Graves disease
(D) Myxedema
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
Explanation:
The patient’s findings:
- Hyperthyroidism symptoms: heat intolerance, nervousness, tachycardia, exophthalmos, warm moist skin
- Lab findings: ↑T3, ↑T4, ↓TSH
- Treatment: Methimazole (an antithyroid drug)
This profile fits classic hyperthyroidism, particularly Graves disease or other causes of thyrotoxicosis.
Myxedema, on the other hand, is associated with severe hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism.
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine,E-19th,p-2291
48. A 45-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of chronic cough, night sweats, weight loss and occasional hemoptysis. He has no history of recent travel or contact with known tuberculosis patients. Chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis ?
(A) Perform a sputum smear and culture for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) and conduct a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Correct
(B) Obtain a CT scan of the chest for better visualization of the cavitary lesions.
(C) Start empirical antitubercular therapy without further testing.
(D) Order a complete blood count (CBC) and liver function tests (LFTs).
49. Austin Flint murmur mimics the murmur of :
(A) Tricuspid regurgitation
(B) Atrial Septal Defect
(C) Mitral stenosis
(D) Patent Ductus arteriosus
Explanation:
The Austin Flint murmur is a diastolic murmur heard in patients with severe aortic regurgitation (AR). It occurs due to the regurgitant aortic jet striking the anterior mitral leaflet, causing functional narrowing of the mitral valve. This leads to turbulent flow across the mitral valve, which closely resembles the low-pitched, mid-diastolic murmur of true mitral stenosis.
How to Differentiate:
- Mitral stenosis: Has an opening snap, loud S1, and features of pulmonary hypertension.
- Austin Flint: No opening snap; associated with bounding pulse, wide pulse pressure, and other signs of AR (e.g., early diastolic murmur at base).
Harrison says- The Austin Flint murmur of chronic severe AR is a low-pitched mid- to late apical diastolic murmur that sometimes can be confused with mitral stenosis.
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine,E-19th,p-1449
50. A 35-year-old patient presented to the ER with chest pain and syncope. On ECG, the following rhythm was observed. Which drug will you give for rapid termination of this condition ? (BONUS Expected)
(A) IV adenosine
(B) IV atropine
(C) IV digoxin
(D) IV propranolol
51. A 20-year-old male was hit on the temple with a baseball bat and became unconscious. After some time after he regains consciousness, he becomes lethargic over the next two hours with unequal pupils. With the provisional diagnosis of intracranial hemorrhage in mind, which of the following arteries is most likely injured, leading to hemorrhage ?
(A) Basilar artery
(B) Anterior communicating artery
(C) Anterior cerebral artery
(D) Middle meningeal artery Correct
52. A 20 year old presents to emergency with history of severe vomiting for last 2 days and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following is metabolic abnormality that can be seen in this patient ?
(A) Hypokalemia
(B) Hypochloremia
(C) Metabolic alkalosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A,B & C
53. A 45-year-old woman presents with fever, chills and muscle aches after a recent visit to rural India. Malaria was diagnosed by blood smear, which shows Plasmodium falciparum infection with a parasitemia level of 4%. She complains of abdominal pain, nausea and mild confusion. Her vital signs are temperature 39.5°C, pulse 120 bpm, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg and oxygen saturation 93% on room air. What is the most appropriate initial management ?
(A) Begin oral artemisinin-based combination therapy and observe
(B) Prescribe atovaquone-proguanil as an outpatient
(C) Admit to the hospital and start oral chloroquine
(D) Administer artesunate intravenously and admit to the ICU Correct
54. Which is not an etiology of obstructive shock ?
(A) Cardiac Tamponade
(B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Massive pulmonary embolism
(D) Tension Pneumothorax
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
55. A 58-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer presents with back pain and weakness in her legs. Imaging reveals lytic lesions in her spine. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms ?
(A) Metastasis of breast cancer to the bone Correct
(B) Pulled muscle
(C) Degenerative disc disease
(D) Osteoporosis
56. 70 year old hypertensive male discontinued his medicines. He suffered a hemorrhagic stroke involving inferior parietal lobule. Which of the following symptoms may be observed as a result of this damage ? ( Bonus )
(A) Impairment of calculation ability
(B) Ignorance of stimuli on one side of the body
(C) Inability to recognize familiar face
(D) Nonsense speech full of jargon
Explanation:
(A) Lesions of the dominant inferior parietal lobule can lead to acalculia, alexia, right-left confusion, and finger agnosia — components of Gerstmann syndrome.
(B) Ignorance of stimuli on one side = seen in nondominant parietal lobe, but not always with inferior parietal lobule stroke. Possible but not as specific.
(C) Inability to recognize familiar face = prosopagnosia, from inferior occipitotemporal lesion.
(D) Nonsense speech full of jargon = Wernicke’s aphasia, from posterior superior temporal gyrus, not parietal lobule.
Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine,E-19th,p-2573Explanation:
Robbins:
- Adenocarcinoma of Esophagus- Risk factors include tobacco use, obesity, prior radiation therapy, and most importantly, Barrett esophagus and long-standing GERD. Seven time more common in men.
- Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Esophagus- Major risk factors include alcohol and tobacco use, poverty, caustic esophageal injury, achalasia, tylosis, and Plummer-Vinson syndrome. Four times more common in men.
Bailey & Love- Smoking and alcohol intake are major risk factors for squamous carcinoma. Smoking is also associated with an increased risk of adenocarcinoma.
Harrison- Squamous cell carcinoma has added risk factors of smoking, alcohol consumption, caustic injury, and human papilloma virus infection. Adenocarcinoma risk is associated with reflux disease and Barrett’s metaplasia, but smoking also increases risk.
58. A 52-year-old diabetic patient presents with a 3-day history of redness, warmth and swelling in the right lower leg. On examination, the area is tender, erythematous and has poorly defined borders. The patient is afebrile and reports mild pain in the affected area. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient ?
(A) Start oral antibiotics effective against Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species, such as cephalexin or amoxicillin-clavulanate. Correct
(B) Order a CT scan to confirm the diagnosis before starting treatment.
(C) Prescribe topical antibiotics and advise elevation of the limb.
(D) Administer intravenous vancomycin immediately.
59. All are features of Neurogenic Shock EXCEPT :
(A) Cool and Clammy Skin Correct
(B) Reduced Urinary Output
(C) Low Systolic BP
(D) Bradycardia
60. A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and diabetes mellitus presents to her primary care physician in early flu season with a 3-day history of fever, malaise, productive cough and dyspnea. She is vaccinated for seasonal influenza every year. On examination, her temperature is 38.2°C and her lung exam reveals diffuse wheezes but no crackles. Her oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. What is the most appropriate management approach for this patient ?
(A) Perform RIDT, initiate oseltamivir if positive and send her home
(B) Prescribe antibiotics for possible secondary bacterial infection only
(C) Admit her to the hospital and start oseltamivir and antibiotics
(D) Discharge with supportive care and close outpatient follow-up
Explanation:
The most appropriate management approach for the 70-year-old woman with COPD, diabetes, and flu-like symptoms, who is vaccinated and stable on room air, is:
(C) Admit her to the hospital and start oseltamivir and antibiotics.
- COPD exacerbations can be triggered by viral infections, including influenza, even in vaccinated individuals.
- Exacerbations with fever and purulent sputum suggest bacterial superinfection, which occurs in over 50% of cases, and therefore antibiotics are typically given even without a confirmed pathogen.
- For patients who are elderly and have comorbidities like diabetes, and present with fever and new respiratory symptoms, hospital admission is warranted when there’s a risk of deterioration, moderate distress, or the need for close monitoring.
- Oseltamivir should be initiated empirically during flu season, especially in high-risk patients like this one, regardless of vaccination status.
Harrison says- Most COPD exacerbations are infectious in origin. Viral infections are common causes, and bacterial superinfection occurs in more than half of exacerbations… Patients with moderate to severe exacerbations, especially those with comorbidities, often require hospitalization. Antibiotics are often given empirically… especially when purulent sputum is present… Oseltamivir or zanamivir is recommended for high-risk patients during flu season, regardless of vaccination status.
61. Modified Wells criteria for predicting deep vein thrombosis DO NOT include :
(A) Intravenous drug abuse
(B) Entire limb not swollen
(C) Previous DVT
(D) Pitting Oedema
Explanation:
| Variable | Score |
| Lower limb trauma or surgery or immobilisation in a plaster cast | 1 |
| Bedridden for >3 days or surgery in last 4 weeks | 1 |
| Tenderness along the line of femoral or popliteal veins | 1 |
| Entire limb swollen | 1 |
| Calf >3 cm larger (10 cm below tibial tuberosity) than other side | 1 |
| Pitting oedema | 1 |
| Dilated collateral superficial veins (not varicose veins) | 1 |
| Previous DVT | 1 |
| Malignancy (including treatment up to 6 months ago) | 1 |
| Intravenous drug abuse | 3 |
| Alternative diagnosis more likely than DVT | –2 |
Interpretation of Score:
- Low probability (5%): score –2 to 0
- Moderate probability (17%): score 1 or 2
- High probability (17–53%): score >2
Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery (E-27th),P-988
62. Which of the following cells play a key role in asthma inflammation ?
(A) Neutrophils
(B) Platelets
(C) Red blood cells
(D) Eosinophils Correct
63. Which is not a characteristic feature of Achalasia cardia ?
(A) Dysphagia progresses rapidly during the course of disease. Correct
(B) Achalasia known to be a premalignant condition of the esophagus.
(C) The classic triad of presenting symptoms consists of dysphagia, regurgitation and weight loss.
(D) Dysphagia often begins with liquids and progresses to solids.
64. A 45-year-old patient presented to emergency with RIF pain and showed single liver abscess with features of appendicitis on CT scan. What is likely etiology ?
(A) Amoebic
(B) Fungal
(C) Bacterial
(D) Metastatic colon cancer
Explanation:
- The CT finding of a liver abscess with concurrent appendicitis is strongly indicative of bacterial (pyogenic) liver abscess.
- Bacteria (especially Klebsiella, Escherichia coli, Streptococcus milleri) spread via the portal venous system, particularly from gastrointestinal sources like appendicitis
- Bacterial abscess can be multiple or single also.
Other options:
(A) Amoebic
- Caused by Entamoeba histolytica. Typically presents with a single right lobe liver abscess.
- Associated with bloody diarrhoea, history of travel to endemic areas, not commonly with appendicitis.
- Abscess fluid is ‘anchovy sauce’-like, sterile unless secondarily infected.
(B) Fungal
- Rare. Occurs in immunocompromised patients (e.g. neutropenia, transplant).
- Not typically related to acute intra-abdominal infections like appendicitis.
(D) Metastatic colon cancer
- Can present with liver lesions, but usually multiple, not abscesses.
- Does not cause acute symptoms like appendicitis or RIF pain.
- Typically discovered during cancer staging or surveillance
Reference: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery (E-28th),P-1209————-
65. Which is a soft sign on clinical examination in case of peripheral vascular injury ?
(A) Audible bruit
(B) Diminished but palpable distal pulse
(C) Pulsatile bleeding
(D) Expanding hematoma
Explanation:
| Hard Signs | Soft Signs |
| Pulsatile bleeding | Diminished but palpable distal pulse |
| Expanding hematoma | History of arterial bleeding at scene |
| Audible bruit or palpable thrill over wound | Proximity of injury to major vessels |
| Signs of distal ischemia (5 P’s) | Small nonexpanding hematoma |
66. Unfavourable factor for non-operative enterocutaneous fistula closure :
(A) Fistula formation secondary to appendicitis or diverticulitis
(B) Distal fistula
(C) Length of fistula tract less than 2 cm
(D) Fistula output less than 200 ml/24 hours
67. Incision given for placement of feeding gastrostomy is a :
(A) Clean contaminated wound
(B) Dirty Wound
(C) Contaminated wound
(D) Clean wound
Explanation:
Feeding gastrostomy involves opening of the gastrointestinal tract (stomach) under controlled, elective, and sterile conditions.
Procedures where hollow viscera (like stomach, intestines, or biliary tract) are entered under controlled conditions without unusual contamination are classified as clean-contaminated wounds.
Examples of clean-contaminated surgeries:
- Gastrectomy
- Gastrostomy
- Cholecystectomy without infection
Other options:
(B) Dirty wound
- Involves old traumatic wounds, existing clinical infection, or perforated viscera.
- Example: perforated appendicitis surgery.
(C) Contaminated wound
- Fresh accidental wounds, gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract, or major breaks in sterile technique.
- Example: colon surgery with gross spillage.
(D) Clean wound
- Non-traumatic wounds without inflammation and no entry into respiratory, gastrointestinal, or genitourinary tracts.
- Example: hernia repair without bowel entry.
68. A 18 year old male presented to emergency room with history of pain abdomen, anorexia and nausea since last 24 hours. On clinical examination patient was febrile with tenderness over right lower quadrant of abdomen but no rebound tenderness. His total leucocyte count was 13000/mm³. His Alvarado score is :
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 7 Correct
(D) 8
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69. Treatment of choice for middle third Clavicle Fracture in 30-year-old male patient with 1 cm gap between fracture fragments is :
(A) Open Reduction and Intramedullary Nailing
(B) Open Reduction and Internal Fixation with Broad DCP
(C) Closed Reduction and Intramedullary Nailing
(D) Conservative Treatment
Explanation:
- Fractures of the clavicle unite readily even if displaced; hence, reduction of the fragment is not essential.
- A triangular sling is sufficient in cases with minimum displacement.
- Figure-of-8 bandage may be applied for young adults with displaced fractures for immobilization and pain relief
Open reduction and internal fixation (with plate or nail) is only indicated:
- If there is neurovascular deficit, or
- In severely displaced fractures where cosmetic concern exists.
In most simple displaced fractures without neurovascular compromise, even 1 cm gap is not absolute indication for surgery — conservative treatment remains the first choice.
Reference: Essential Orthopaedics by Maheswari (Edition-7th),p-88
70. Thomas test of the hip joint is done to diagnose :
(A) Fixed Abduction deformity of hip joint
(B) Internal Rotation deformity of hip joint
(C) Fixed Flexion Deformity of hip joint Correct
(D) Fixed Adduction Deformity of hip joint
71. Ideal treatment for Unstable Extracapsular Fracture Neck Femur in 72-year-old male patient is :
(A) Closed reduction and Intramedullary Nailing
(B) Open reduction and internal fixation with CCS
(C) Cemented Bipolar Hemiarthroplasty-
(D) Open reduction and internal fixation with DHS
Explanation:
The patient is a 72-year-old male with an unstable extracapsular fracture neck femur (which includes inter-trochanteric fractures).
- Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS) is most commonly used for internal fixation of intertrochanteric fractures (extracapsular fracture).
- But in Unstable Inter-trochanteric fractures → DHS cannot be used, because it cuts through due to comminution.
Hence, choice of implant in unstable trochanteric fractures includes:
- Proximal femoral nails (PFN),
- Condylocephalic nails (Proximal femoral nails, Ender’s nail, Gamma nail),
- Medoff plate or Trochanteric stabilization plate,
- Dynamic condylar screw (DCS) or 95° condylar blade plate.
Other options:
Cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty is indicated for intracapsular fractures (fracture neck of femur), particularly when head preservation is not possible (like in non-union or avascular necrosis), not for extracapsular fractures.
CCS (Cancellous screws) are used for fracture neck femur (intracapsular), not for extracapsular fractures.
Reference: Essential Orthopaedics by Maheswari (Edition-7th),p-139
Reference: Textbook of ORTHOPEDICS 4th Edition By John Ebnezar,p-666
72. A pedestrian crossing the road met with a road traffic accident. He has presented to the emergency with left foot drop. Power in tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus is 0/5. While power in tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius is 4/5. What is the likely site of injury ?
(A) Posterior dislocation of femur head
(B) Left ankle fracture
(C) Supracondylar fracture of left femur
(D) Fracture neck of left fibula
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
73. All are tests for Anterior Cruciate Ligament deficiency of the Knee, except :
(A) Pivot shift test
(B) McMurray’s test Correct
(C) Lachman’s
(D) Anterior Drawer test
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74. A 30-year-old G1P0 woman is admitted with complaints of excessive nausea and vomiting at 11 weeks of gestation. On admission, hemoglobin is 9 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume of 116 fL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of anaemia in this case ?
(A) Folate deficiency Correct
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Iron deficiency
(D) Physiological anemia of pregnancy
75. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the effects of combined oral contraceptive pill ?
(A) Reduced endometrial and ovarian cancer risk
(B) Reduced bone mass Correct
(C) Increased menstrual cycle regularity
(D) Reduced menstrual blood loss
76. Correct match of Indications of prenatal diagnosis with methods used is :
(A) Metabolic defects – Culture and karyotyping of fetal cells from amniotic fluid
(B) Neural Tube Defects – DNA Diagnosis
(C) Biochemical Disorders – Protein Assay Correct
(D) Chromosomal anomaly – Biochemical analysis of fluid
77. A 24-year-old primigravida presents in active labour at 39 weeks of gestation. Her BMI is 35 kg/m². After the delivery of fetal head, the shoulders fail to deliver with normal traction. Which of the following maneuver is not done in this condition ?
(A) Ritgen maneuver
(B) Zavanelli maneuver
(C) McRoberts maneuver
(D) Wood’s maneuver
Explanations:
Ritgen maneuver is not used for managing shoulder dystocia. It is employed during normal delivery of the fetal head to control its emergence and protect the perineum by applying upward pressure on the fetal chin through the perineum during extension.
In contrast, the following are maneuvers used specifically in shoulder dystocia:
- McRoberts maneuver: First-line; involves hyperflexing maternal thighs to widen the pelvis.
- Wood’s maneuver: Rotates the posterior shoulder anteriorly by corkscrew motion.
- Zavanelli maneuver: Rare, last-resort; involves pushing the fetal head back into the uterus for cesarean delivery.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
—
78. A 6-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of sore throat, low-grade fever and difficulty swallowing. On examination, the child has cervical lymphadenopathy, a swollen neck, and a thick, grayish-white membrane covering the tonsils and pharynx that bleeds when attempts are made to remove it. The child is unvaccinated. What is the most appropriate next step in management ?
(A) Schedule an outpatient appointment for a throat culture before starting treatment.
(B) Perform a throat swab for rapid strep testing and provide supportive care only.
(C) Prescribe oral antibiotics and discharge the patient with follow-up.
(D) Admit the patient, isolate them, administer diphtheria antitoxin and start intravenous antibiotics. Correct
79. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about breath-holding spells ? (BONUS Expected)
(A) In some cases, the child becomes unconscious or hypotonic.
(B) The essential component of management is parenteral reassurance.
(C) Differential diagnoses include seizure and cardiac arrhythmias.
(D) The peak age of onset is 6 months to 2 years.
Explanation: All are Correct
Reference: Ghai Essential Pediatrics (E-8th),p-58
80. A 10-month-old child presented with fever, pallor and spleen up to the umbilicus. The complete blood counts revealed Hb of 7 gm/dL, total leukocyte counts of 40000/mm³, and platelets counts of 30000/mm³. His bone marrow examination revealed B-acute lymphoblastic leukemia by flow cytometry, and his cytogenetics study showed the presence of hyperdiploidy. Which of the following criteria makes him a high-risk leukemia ?
(A) Bulky organomegaly
(B) Hyperdiploidy
(C) Age
(D) TLC counts
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
81. At what age does a child start imaginative play ?
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
Explanation:
Imaginative play starts by 3 years of age, and this is considered a key developmental milestone. It is also mentioned in GHAI that by 4 years, play activities become very imaginative, indicating that the foundation begins earlier, at 3 years.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes + Must Know Topics
Reference: Ghai Essential Pediatrics (E-8th),p-5582. A 2 month old child presents with noisy breathing for 3 weeks. Examination reveals noisy breathing on inspiration with a pulse rate of 157/min, respiratory rate of 48/min with suprasternal retractions. Noisy breathing and retractions reduce on proning. Which of the following is the unlikely cause for airway obstruction ?
(A) Micro-retrognathia
(B) Subglottic hemangioma
(C) Laryngomalacia
(D) Vallecular cyst
Explanation:
Micro-retrognathia (as in Pierre Robin sequence) can cause upper airway obstruction due to posterior displacement of the tongue. This obstruction improves on proning.
Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of inspiratory stridor in infants. It typically presents within the first few weeks of life. Stridor is inspiratory and improves on prone positioning.
Vallecular cyst is a midline supraglottic cyst that can cause intermittent airway obstruction and improves in prone position.
Subglottic hemangioma, on the other hand, usually presents later (3–6 months of age) and causes progressive rather than early-onset noisy breathing. The stridor is often biphasic and worsens with agitation, and does not improve with proning. This makes it the least likely cause in a 2-month-old with improvement on prone position.
Reference: Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat by PL Dhingra (Edition-6th)p-295
83. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for cephalhematoma ?
(A) It usually resolves over 3-6 weeks.
(B) It can cause hyperbilirubinemia.
(C) It lies over the parietal bone between the skull and periosteum.
(D) It crosses the suture line and does not have a distinct margin.
Explanation:
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
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84. Onodi and Haller cells of ethmoid labyrinth are found in relation to which of the following structures ?
(A) Orbital floor and nasolacrimal duct
(B) Optic nerve and internal carotid artery
(C) Optic nerve and floor of orbit Correct
(D) Optic nerve and nasolacrimal duct
85. Which of the following is most commonly involved semicircular canal in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo ?
(A) Posterior Correct
(B) Saccule
(C) Lateral
(D) Superior
86. Following are the CLINICAL TESTS of assessment of vestibular functions EXCEPT :
(A) Romberg Test
(B) Caloric Test
(C) Spontaneous nystagmus
(D) Fistula Test
Explanation:
Clinical Tests of Vestibular Function
- Spontaneous Nystagmus
- Fistula Test
- Romberg Test
- Gait Test
- Past-Pointing and Falling Test
- Hallpike Manoeuvre (Positional Test)
Laboratory Tests of Vestibular Function
- Caloric Test (Modified Kobrak, Fitzgerald–Hallpike, Cold-Air Caloric Test)
- Electronystagmography (ENG)
- Optokinetic Test
- Rotation Test (Barany’s Chair)
- Galvanic Test
- Posturography
Reference: Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat by PL Dhingra (Edition-6th)p-56
87. A 10 year old boy presents with sudden unprovoked nasal bleed which was noticed by his friend while playing an afternoon cricket match. On examination, his pulse is 84/min, no dehydration, dry posterior pharyngeal wall. He comes with a partially soaked handkerchief. Which of the following statements is correct pertaining to the clinical scenario ?
(A) Placement of absorbable nasal pack is the gold standard for controlling arterial bleed.
(B) Nasal clots should be gently suctioned under vision to identify the site of bleeding.
(C) In majority of these cases, epistaxis typically originates from the septal branches of posterior ethmoid artery.
(D) Management includes firm pressure over the nose with head backwards for 20 minutes.
Explanation:
In children presenting with anterior epistaxis, the most common bleeding site is Little’s area (Kiesselbach’s plexus) on the anterior nasal septum. Before initiating definitive management, nasal clots must be gently removed under direct visualization, as these clots can obscure the bleeding point. Identifying the exact source of bleeding is essential for targeted treatment, such as cauterization.
Option A: Absorbable nasal packing is not the gold standard for arterial bleeds. Anterior nasal packing with ribbon gauze or chemical cautery is typically preferred.
Option C: Posterior ethmoid artery is rarely involved in pediatric epistaxis. Its involvement is more common in older patients with posterior bleeds.
Option D: The practice of tilting the head backward is outdated and discouraged. It may lead to aspiration of blood. Instead, the child should sit up, lean forward, and apply firm pressure on the nasal alae.
Reference: Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat by PL Dhingra (Edition-6th)p-179—
88. A 65 year old male presents with a sudden loss of vision in his right eye. A dilated fundus examination reveals a pale retina with a well-defined “cherry-red spot” at the fovea. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
(A) Diabetic retinopathy
(B) Retinal detachment
(C) Central retinal artery occlusion
(D) Central retinal vein occlusion
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (One-Liners)
89. In the grading of trachoma, trachomatous inflammation follicular is defined as the presence of :
(A) Five or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
(B) Three or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
(C) Five or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
(D) Three or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
90. Prominent corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT : (Very old PYQ, Previously asked in All India PG Exam)
(A) Leprosy
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Keratoconus
(D) Herpes simplex keratitis
Explanation:
Prominent or enlarged corneal nerves may occur asymptomatically or with diseases.
Local ocular conditions causing prominent nerves include:
- Keratoconus (common cause)
- Keratitis (especially acanthamoebic keratitis)
- Fuchs endothelial dystrophy
- Trauma
- Congenital glaucoma
Systemic diseases associated with prominent corneal nerves are:
- Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndrome type IIb
- Neurofibromatosis
- Refsum syndrome
In Herpes simplex keratitis, corneal sensations are diminished, not increased nerve visibility.
Thus, among the options given, Herpes simplex keratitis is the exception.
Reference: Parson's diseases of EYE, (Edition-23rd),p-447
91. Secondary glaucoma following corneal perforation is due to :
(A) Hyphema
(B) Angle disruption
(C) Anterior synechiae formation
(D) Peripheral synechiae
Explanation:
- Secondary glaucoma following corneal perforation commonly occurs due to peripheral anterior synechiae formation, which leads to angle closure and subsequent rise in intraocular pressure (IOP).
- Peripheral synechiae are adhesions between the peripheral iris and cornea or trabecular meshwork, which block the aqueous humor outflow, leading to glaucoma.
Reference: Comprehensive Ophthalmology by AK Khurana (Edition-6th),p-251
92. A 40-year-old man undergoes a routine eye exam with an irregular pupil that is non-reactive to light but accommodates. What is the most likely cause of this finding ?
(A) Third nerve palsy
(B) Argyll Robertson pupil
(C) Adie’s tonic pupil (By RUHS)
(D) Horner’s syndrome
(B) is the Best Answer according to patient’s presentation.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes (Must Know Topics)
Explanation:
| Feature | Argyll Robertson Pupil | Adie’s Tonic Pupil |
|---|---|---|
| Pupil size | Slightly small | Larger (anisocoria) |
| Light reflex | Absent (both direct and consensual) | Absent |
| Near reflex | Present (normal speed) | Present but slow and tonic |
| Laterality | Bilateral | Unilateral |
| Common cause | Neurosyphilis (tectal lesion) | Postganglionic parasympathetic damage |
| Mydriatic response | Dilates poorly with mydriatics | Supersensitive to 0.125% pilocarpine |
Reference: Comprehensive Ophthalmology by AK Khurana (Edition-6th),p-317—
93. What is the imaging of choice for suspected acute osteomyelitis ?
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) MRI Correct
(C) CT scan
(D) X-ray
Note: Similar MCQ Previously discussed in Test series
94. X-rays are produced when accelerated electrons hit :
(A) Voltage regulators
(B) Anode Correct
(C) Cathode
(D) Diode
95. False statement regarding screening mammography is :
(A) Younger women with a previous breast cancer, significant family history of breast cancer should also be recommend for screening mammography.
(B) The goal of screening mammography is detecting occult breast cancer with better prognosis than cancers identified by palpation.
(C) Screening mammography is performed in asymptomatic women.
(D) Annual screening mammography is recommended for women older than 40 years.
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
96. Which of the following is the recommended modality for breast cancer screening in a 32-year-old with BRCA mutation ?
(A) 6 monthly ultrasound
(B) Clinical breast examination 3 monthly
(C) Annual Screening Mammogram
(D) Annual Screening Mammogram and Breast MRI
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
97. Which of the following modality imaging method is used for acute suspicion of stroke ?
(A) Contrast enhanced MRI
(B) MR Spectroscopy
(C) Diffusion weighted MRI
(D) T2 weighted MRI
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
98. A 55-year-old female with history of palpable breast lump underwent mammography. Her mammography categorized the lesion as BIRADS 0. The interpretation of test result is :
(A) Benign
(B) Probably Benign
(C) Negative
(D) Inconclusive
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
99. Which of the following imaging modality does not produce harmful ionic radiation ?
(A) PET-scan
(B) CT scan
(C) X-ray
(D) MRI
Note: Previously discussed in our notes
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100.A patient visits the OPD and complains of large fluid-filled blisters. The patient was diagnosed as a case of Bullous Pemphigoid. Autoantibodies to which of the following cell junctions is most likely to be affected ?
(A) Gap junction
(B) Desmosomes
(C) Hemidesmosomes Correct
(D) Tight junction
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